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PRMIA Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Sample Questions:

1. In estimating credit exposure for a line of credit, it is usual to consider:

A) the full value of the credit line to be the exposure at default as the borrower has an informational advantage that will lead them to borrow fully against the credit line at the time of default.
B) only the value of credit exposure currently existing against the credit line as the exposure at default.
C) the present value of the line of credit at the agreed rate of lending.
D) a fixed fraction of the line of credit to be the exposure at default even though the currently drawn amount is quite different from such a fraction.

2. Under the internal ratings based approach for risk weighted assets, for which of the following parameters must each institution make internal estimates (as opposed to relying upon values determined by a national supervisor):

A) Effective maturity
B) Loss given default
C) Exposure at default
D) Probability of default

3. The probability of default of a security over a 1 year period is 3%. What is the probability that it would have defaulted within 6 months?

A) 3.00%
B) 1.51%
C) 98.49%
D) 17.32%

4. The frequency distribution for operational risk loss events can be modeled by which of the following distributions:
I. The binomial distribution
II. The Poisson distribution
III. The negative binomial distribution
IV. The omega distribution

A) I and III
B) I, II and III
C) I, II, III and IV
D) I, III and IV

5. Which of the following carry greater counterparty risk: a forward contract on a 10 year note, or a commercial paper carrying a AA credit rating with identicalmaturity and notional?

A) The forward contract has greater credit risk as its future gains are unknown
B) The commercial paper has greater credit risk as the entire notional is outstanding
C) They both carry the same credit risk
D) Credit risk can not be compared in these terms

Solutions: