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NEW QUESTION # 124
An organization determines existing business continuity practices areinadequateto support critical internal process dependencies during a contingency event. Acompliance analystwants the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to identify the level ofresidual riskthat is acceptable to guide remediation activities. Which of the following does the CIO need to clarify?
- A. Mitigation
- B. Likelihood
- C. Impact
- D. Appetite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
Understanding Residual Risk:
Residual riskis the amount of risk remainingafter controls and mitigations have been applied.
Risk appetitedefines the level of risk an organization iswilling to acceptbefore taking additional actions.
Why Option D is Correct:
TheCIO must clarify the organization's "Risk Appetite"to determinehow much residual risk is acceptable.
If risk exceeds the appetite,additional security measuresneed to be implemented.
This aligns withISO 31000andNIST Risk Management Framework (RMF).
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A (Mitigation):Mitigationrefers toreducing risk, but it doesn't define the acceptable level of residual risk.
B (Impact):Impact assessment measurespotential damage, but it does not determine what is acceptable.
C (Likelihood):Likelihood is theprobability of risk occurring, but not what level isacceptable.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide:Risk Management & Business Continuity NIST SP 800-37:Risk Management Framework ISO 27005:Risk Tolerance & Acceptance
NEW QUESTION # 125
A security engineer must resolve a vulnerability in a deprecated version of Python for a custom-developed flight simulation application that is monitored and controlled remotely. The source code is proprietary and built with Python functions running on the Ubuntu operating system. Version control is not enabled for the application in development or production. However, the application must remain online in the production environment using built-in features. Which of the following solutions best reduces the attack surface of these issues and meets the outlined requirements?
- A. Configure code-signing within the CI/CD pipeline, update Python with aptitude, and update modules with pip in a test environment. Deploy the solution to production.
- B. Enable branch protection in the GitHub repository. Update Python with aptitude, and update modules with pip in a test environment. Deploy the solution to production.
- C. Use an NFS network share. Update Python with aptitude, and update modules with pip in a test environment. Deploy the solution to production.
- D. Configure version designation within the Python interpreter. Update Python with aptitude, and update modules with pip in a test environment. Deploy the solution to production.
- E. Code-signing within the CI/CD pipeline ensures that only verified and signed code is deployed, mitigating the risk of supply chain attacks. Updating Python with aptitude and updating modules with pip ensures vulnerabilities are patched. Deploying the solution to production after testing maintains application availability while securing the development lifecycle.
Branch protection (B) applies only to version-controlled environments, which is not the case here.NFS network share (C) does not address the deprecated Python vulnerability.Version designation (D) does not eliminate security risks from outdated dependencies.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 126
An analyst needs to evaluate all images and documents that are publicly shared on a website.
Which of the following would be the best tool to evaluate the metadata of these files?
- A. Volatility
- B. ExifTool
- C. OllyDbg
- D. Ghidra
Answer: B
Explanation:
ExifTool is a powerful tool for reading, writing, and editing metadata in various types of files, including images and documents. It can extract metadata such as the creation date, software used, author information, GPS coordinates, and more, which can be useful for evaluating the characteristics of publicly shared files.
NEW QUESTION # 127
A security analyst discovered requests associated with IP addresses known for born legitimate
3nd bot-related traffic. Which of the following should the analyst use to determine whether the requests are malicious?
- A. User-agent string
- B. Web application headers
- C. Byte length of the request
- D. HTML encoding field
Answer: A
Explanation:
The user-agent string can provide valuable information to distinguish between legitimate and bot- related traffic. It contains details about the browser, device, and sometimes the operating system of the client making the request.
Why Use User-Agent String?
Identify Patterns: User-agent strings can help identify patterns that are typical of bots or legitimate users.
Block Malicious Bots: Many bots use known user-agent strings, and identifying these can help block malicious requests.
Anomalies Detection: Anomalous user-agent strings can indicate spoofing attempts or malicious activity.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A company wants to implement a three-tier approach to separate the web, database, and application servers. A security administrator must harden the environment. Which of the following is the best solution?
- A. Implementing microsegmentation on the server VLANs
- B. Deploying a VPN to prevent remote locations from accessing server VLANs
- C. installing a firewall and making it the network core
- D. Configuring a SASE solution to restrict users to server communication
Answer: A
Explanation:
Microsegmentation is the best solution to separate and harden the environment. It involves creating granular security controls within the network to restrict communication between servers in different tiers (web, database, application) while allowing necessary communication. This limits the attack surface and improves security by preventing lateral movement within the network.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A user from the sales department opened a suspicious file attachment. The sales department then contacted the SOC to investigate a number of unresponsive systems, and the team successfully identified the file and the origin of the attack. Which of the following is the next step of the incident response plan?
- A. Remediation
- B. Containment
- C. Response
- D. Recovery
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incident response follows a standard process (e.g., NIST 800-61): Preparation, Identification, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned. After identifying the attack (file and origin), the next step isContainment-limiting the spread or impact (e.g., isolating systems) before remediation or recovery.
* Option A:Remediation (fixing the root cause) follows containment.
* Option B:Correct-containment prevents further damage post-identification.
* Option C:"Response" is too vague; it encompasses all steps.
* Option D:Recovery (restoring systems) comes after containment and eradication.
Reference:CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Domain 4: Cybersecurity Operations - Incident Response Lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION # 130
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application. The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?
- A. Development environment
- B. Testing environment
- C. CI/CO pipeline
- D. Staging environment
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here's a detailed explanation:
Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.
Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.
Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Study Guide by Quentin Docter, Jon Buhagiar NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
NEW QUESTION # 131
A threat hunter is identifying potentially malicious activity associated with an APT. When the threat hunter runs queries against the SIEM platform with a date range of 60 to 90 days ago, the involved account seems to be typically most active in the evenings. When the threat hunter reruns the same query with a date range of 5 to 30 days ago, the account appears to be most active in the early morning. Which of the following techniques is the threat hunter using to better understand the data?
- A. Adversary emulation
- B. User behavior analytics
- C. OSINT analysis activities
- D. TTP-based inquiries
Answer: B
Explanation:
User behavior analytics (UBA) detects anomalous activity by analyzing historical patterns and comparing them to recent behavior. The time shift in account activity suggests potential compromise or misuse.
NEW QUESTION # 132
A security operations engineer needs to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused within an enterprise. Which of the following is the most secure way to achieve this goal?
- A. Securely deleting the encryption keys used by the SSD
- B. Wiping the SSD through degaussing
- C. Writing non-zero, random data to all cells of the SSD
- D. Executing a script that deletes and overwrites all data on the SSD three times
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most secure way to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused is to securely delete the encryption keys used by the SSD. Without the encryption keys, the data on the SSD remains encrypted and is effectively unreadable, rendering any residual data useless. This method is more reliable and efficient than overwriting data multiple times or using other physical destruction methods.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Highlights the importance of managing encryption keys and securely deleting them to protect data.
NIST Special Publication 800-88, "Guidelines for Media Sanitization": Recommends cryptographic erasure as a secure method for sanitizing encrypted storage devices.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A company receives several complaints from customers regarding its website. An engineer implements a parser for the web server logs that generates the following output:
Which of the following should the company implement to best resolve the issue?
- A. IDS
- B. WAF
- C. NAC
- D. CDN
Answer: D
Explanation:
The table indicates varying load times for users accessing the website from different geographic locations. Customers from Australia and India are experiencing significantly higher load times compared to those from the United States.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?
- A. Compliance tracking
- B. Quality assurance
- C. Situational awareness
- D. Change management
Answer: D
Explanation:
To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.
NEW QUESTION # 135
A developer makes a small change to a resource allocation module on a popular social media website and causes a memory leak. During a peak utilization period, several web servers crash, causing the website to go offline. Which of the following testing techniques is the most efficient way to prevent this from reoccurring?
- A. Load
- B. Regression
- C. Canary
- D. Smoke
Answer: A
Explanation:
Load testing evaluates how a system performs under expected and peak utilization. It would have identified the memory leak during high traffic, preventing the web servers from crashing in production.
NEW QUESTION # 136
Developers have been creating and managing cryptographic material on their personal laptops fix use in production environment. A security engineer needs to initiate a more secure process. Which of the following is the best strategy for the engineer to use?
- A. Disabling the BIOS and moving to UEFI
- B. Managing secrets on the vTPM hardware
- C. Employing shielding lo prevent LMI
- D. Managing key material on a HSM
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best strategy for securely managing cryptographic material is to use a Hardware Security Module (HSM).
Here's why:
* Security and Integrity: HSMs are specialized hardware devices designed to protect and manage digital keys. They provide high levels of physical and logical security, ensuring that cryptographic material is well protected against tampering and unauthorized access.
* Centralized Key Management: Using HSMs allows for centralized management of cryptographic keys, reducing the risks associated with decentralized and potentially insecure key storage practices, such as on personal laptops.
* Compliance and Best Practices: HSMs comply with various industry standards and regulations (such as FIPS 140-2) for secure key management. This ensures that the organization adheres to best practices and meets compliance requirements.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-57: Recommendation for Key Management
* ISO/IEC 19790:2012: Information Technology - Security Techniques - Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules
NEW QUESTION # 137
A company experienced a data breach, resulting in the disclosure of extremely sensitive data regarding a merger. As a regulated entity, the company must comply with reporting and disclosure requirements. The company is concerned about its public image and shareholder values. Which of the following best supports the organization in addressing its concerns?
- A. Data subject access request
- B. Business impact analysis
- C. Crisis management plan
- D. Supply chain management program
Answer: C
Explanation:
A crisis management plan provides a structured approach to responding to a data breach and handling the subsequent public relations issues. This plan would allow the company to manage the disclosure of sensitive information, address regulatory compliance requirements, and protect its public image and shareholder values effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 138
An organization recently hired a third party to audit the information security controls present in the environment. After reviewing the audit findings, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) approved the budget for an in-depth defense strategy for network security. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CISO approved the additional budget?
- A. Other departments had unused budget, which was transferred to IT security.
- B. Potential customers increasingly asked for security compliance reports.
- C. The auditor reported a low score on the PCI OSS self-assessment questionnaire.
- D. The previous network architecture contained controls that could be easily bypassed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely reason for approving additional budget is that the audit revealed the existing network security controls could be easily bypassed. This justifies investing in a stronger, defense- in-depth network security strategy.
NEW QUESTION # 139
The device event logs sourced from MDM software are as follows:
Which of the following security concerns and response actions would best address the risks posed by the device in the logs?
- A. Impossible travel; disable the device's account and access while investigating
- B. Resource leak; recover the device for analysis and clean up the local storage
- C. Falsified status reporting; remotely wipe the device
- D. Malicious installation of an application; change the MDM configuration to remove application ID
Answer: A
Explanation:
Due to line 4, a GPS spoofing could be in use either by the newly install app, or before the app was installed.
NEW QUESTION # 140
A company receives reports about misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in a third-party hardware device that is part of its released products. Which of the following solutions is the best way for the company to identify possible issues at an earlier stage?
- A. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers
- B. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program
- C. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line
- D. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Addressing misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in third-party hardware requires a comprehensive approach to manage risks throughout the supply chain. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management (SCRM) program is the most effective solution as it encompasses the following:
Holistic Approach: SCRM considers the entire lifecycle of the product, from initial design through to delivery and deployment. This ensures that risks are identified and managed at every stage.
Vendor Management: It includes thorough vetting of suppliers and ongoing assessments of their security practices, which can identify and mitigate vulnerabilities early. Regular Audits and Assessments: A robust SCRM program involves regular audits and assessments, both internally and with suppliers, to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.
Collaboration and Communication: Ensures that there is effective communication and collaboration between the company and its suppliers, leading to faster identification and resolution of issues. Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same comprehensive risk management:
NEW QUESTION # 141
A user reports application access issues to the help desk. The help desk reviews the logs for the user:
Which of the following is most likely the reason for the issue?
- A. The user inadvertently tripped the geoblock rule in NGFW.
- B. A threat actor has compromised the user's account and attempted to log in.
- C. The user did not attempt to connect from an approved subnet.
- D. The user is not allowed to access the human resources system outside of business hours.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The logs show that the user connected from Toronto (104.18.16.29) and Los Angeles (95.67.137.12) within minutes. The sudden location change is a typical trigger for geoblocking in a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), leading to the HR System being denied.
NEW QUESTION # 142
A user submits a help desk ticket stating then account does not authenticate sometimes. An analyst reviews the following logs for the user:
Which of the following best explains the reason the user's access is being denied?
- A. Invalid user-to-device bindings
- B. Account compromise
- C. Time-based access restrictions
- D. incorrectly typed password
Answer: C
Explanation:
The logs reviewed for the user indicate that access is being denied due to time-based access restrictions. These restrictions are commonly implemented to limit access to systems during specific hours to enhance security. If a user attempts to authenticate outside of the allowed time window, access will be denied. This measure helps prevent unauthorized access during non-business hours, reducing the risk of security incidents.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Covers various access control methods, including time-based restrictions, as a means of enhancing security.
* NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations": Recommends the use of time-based access restrictions as part of access control policies.
* "Access Control and Identity Management" by Mike Chapple and Aaron French: Discusses the implementation and benefits of time-based access restrictions.
NEW QUESTION # 143
A security analyst must perform a security review on a static application. The application mostly contains publicly available open-source modules. The analyst reviews the following table:
Which of the following mitigations would the security analyst most likely recommend?
- A. Installing a WAF to block cross-site scripting
- B. Transitioning to proprietary modules
- C. Updating vulnerable third-party source code
- D. Configuring TLS for all web-client connections
Answer: C
Explanation:
The table shows that some open-source modules, such as the email module (492 days old) and input sanitization module (203 days old), are outdated. The most effective mitigation is to update vulnerable third-party source code to the latest secure versions, reducing exposure to known vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 144
During an audit at an organization, auditors find that developers are able to promote code to production. The auditors request a full review of all production changes. Which of the following should the organization implement to prevent a full review in the future?
- A. Change control board
- B. Centralized code repositories
- C. Branch protection
- D. Interactive application security testing
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 145
Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills by encrypting patient data at rest?
- A. Providing for non-repudiation data
- B. Securing data transfer between hospitals
- C. Reducing liability from identity theft
- D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised. Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy controls are in place.
NEW QUESTION # 146
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